06 Air Law & Airspace

What is the PIC’s fundamental legal authority and responsibility?

The PIC is responsible for operation of the aircraft and has final authority over its disposition; deviation from the rules is permitted when absolutely necessary in the interests of safety.

Which airspace classes are controlled airspace?

Classes A, B, C, D and E.

How does separation work in Classes A, B and C?

A: IFR only, all traffic separated. B: IFR and VFR, all traffic separated. C: IFR separated from IFR and VFR; VFR separated from IFR but not from other VFR.

How does separation work in Classes D, E, F and G?

D: IFR separated from IFR only. E: IFR separated from IFR only; VFR is not controlled. F provides advisory service to participating IFR; G provides no ATC separation.

In which classes do both IFR and VFR require an ATC clearance?

B, C and D; Class A permits IFR only and also requires clearance.

What is the key operational difference of Class E?

IFR requires ATC clearance and is separated from IFR; VFR normally requires neither clearance nor continuous radio and is not separated by ATC.

Is Class E permitted as a control zone under SERA?

No.

What airspace classification applies above FL195 under SERA?

Class C.

What is the normal SERA speed-limit logic below 10,000 ft?

250 kt IAS applies to VFR in Class C and to all flights in Classes D, E, F and G, unless an approved exception applies.

What are the standard VMC minima at or above 10,000 ft?

8 km flight visibility and 1,500 m horizontally / 1,000 ft vertically from cloud.

What are the standard VMC minima below 10,000 ft but above the low-level band?

5 km flight visibility and 1,500 m horizontally / 1,000 ft vertically from cloud.

What are the standard low-level VMC minima in Classes F and G?

5 km visibility, clear of cloud and with the surface in sight, subject to authorised reductions.

What defines the low-level VMC band?

At or below 3,000 ft AMSL or 1,000 ft above terrain, whichever is higher.

What are the normal VFR altitude limits under SERA?

VFR is normally prohibited above FL195; specific authorised operations may be permitted up to FL285.

Why is VFR authorisation above FL285 normally unavailable in RVSM airspace?

Because 1,000 ft vertical separation is applied above FL290.

What are the basic Special VFR requirements for an aeroplane?

ATC clearance within a CTR, clear of cloud, surface in sight, flight visibility at least 1,500 m and speed 140 kt IAS or less.

What aerodrome weather prevents ATC from issuing normal SVFR take-off/landing/circuit clearance to an aeroplane?

Ground visibility below 1,500 m or ceiling below 600 ft.

What are the standard VFR minimum-height rules?

Over congested areas: at least 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 600 m; elsewhere normally at least 500 ft above ground/water or the highest obstacle within 500 ft.

If no State IFR minimum altitude is published, what obstacle clearance applies?

At least 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 km over mountainous/high terrain; 1,000 ft elsewhere.

Does entering VMC automatically justify cancelling IFR?

No. IFR should only be cancelled when continued flight in uninterrupted VMC is intended and expected.

Can ATC request or encourage a pilot to cancel IFR?

No; cancellation must be initiated by the pilot.

What is the standard phrase for cancelling IFR?

“CANCELLING MY IFR FLIGHT.”

What are transition altitude, transition level and transition layer?

TA: at/below it vertical position is expressed as altitude; TL: lowest usable flight level above it; transition layer: airspace between TA and TL.

What is the basic semicircular cruising-level rule?

Track 000°–179°: odd IFR levels; 180°–359°: even IFR levels. VFR uses the corresponding levels plus 500 ft.

When do cruising-level rules give way to another level?

When ATC clearance or published procedures specify otherwise.

What is an RMZ and what does it require?

A Radio Mandatory Zone requires the prescribed radio equipment, continuous listening watch and required two-way communication.

What should an initial call before entering an RMZ contain?

Station, callsign, aircraft type, position, level, intentions and any additionally required information.

What is a TMZ?

A Transponder Mandatory Zone requiring an operating pressure-altitude-reporting transponder, normally Mode A/C or Mode S, unless alternative provisions are published.

Where are RMZ/TMZ requirements found?

In the applicable AIP.

When is an ATS flight plan fundamentally required?

For flights receiving ATC service, IFR in advisory airspace, international crossings unless otherwise agreed, designated routes/areas and night flights leaving the vicinity of an aerodrome.

What are the current standard SERA flight-plan submission times?

Not more than 120 h before EOBT; normally at least 3 h before EOBT if potentially subject to ATFM, 60 min for other applicable flights, or 10 min before the relevant entry/crossing point when filed in flight.

Can a flight plan cover only part of a flight?

Yes.

What should a pilot do if an ATC clearance cannot be safely complied with?

Inform ATC and obtain an amended clearance; safety takes precedence over accepting an unsuitable clearance.

Does an ATC clearance remove the PIC’s responsibility for collision avoidance and safe operation?

No.

What is the basic right-of-way rule for aircraft approaching head-on?

Both alter heading to the right.

What is the basic right-of-way rule for converging aircraft at approximately the same level?

The aircraft that has the other on its right gives way.

What is the basic overtaking rule?

The aircraft being overtaken has right-of-way; the overtaking aircraft keeps clear, normally by altering to the right.

What is the basic landing priority rule?

Aircraft landing or on final have priority over aircraft in flight or operating on the ground; an aircraft making an emergency landing has priority over all others.

What are the key emergency SSR codes?

7500 unlawful interference; 7600 radio failure; 7700 emergency.

What are the normal SERA conspicuity SSR codes when no discrete code is assigned?

7000 when not receiving ATS; 2000 when receiving ATS unless another code is prescribed or assigned.

When should IDENT normally be selected?

Only when requested by ATS.

What is the fundamental difference between prohibited, restricted and danger areas?

Prohibited: flight is forbidden; restricted: permitted only under specified conditions; danger: hazardous activity may exist but flight is not necessarily prohibited.